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NEW QUESTION # 83
Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?
- A. Code security
- B. Virtualization
- C. API
- D. IRP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Code security in cloud environments involves using tools like Static Application Security Testing (SAST) to automatically analyze source code for vulnerabilities before deployment. This helps identify and remediate potential threats early in the software development lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION # 84
What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)
- A. Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call
- B. Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive
- C. Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page
- D. Convincing an employee that they are also an employee
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Social engineering attacks manipulate human trust to gain unauthorized access or information. Convincing an employee that an attacker is also an employee builds rapport, lowering defenses for information disclosure or credential sharing. Similarly, impersonating a company representative and requesting unrelated personal data exploits authority bias to deceive victims. These tactics exploit psychological vulnerabilities rather than technical flaws and are prevalent initial steps in multi-stage attacks. Palo Alto Networks highlights the importance of training, multi-factor authentication, and behavior-based threat detection to mitigate social engineering risks effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 85
How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?
- A. Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure
- B. Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility
- C. Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility
- D. Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prisma SaaS connects directly to the applications themselves, therefore providing continuous silent monitoring of the risks within the sanctioned SaaS applications, with detailed visibility that is not possible with traditional security solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 86
What is required for a SIEM to operate correctly to ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake?
- A. containers and developers
- B. data center and UPS
- C. infrastructure and containers
- D. connectors and interfaces
Answer: D
Explanation:
Connectors and interfaces are the components that enable a SIEM to collect, process, and analyze data from various sources, such as Microsoft 365 services and applications1, cloud platforms, network devices, and security solutions. Connectors are responsible for extracting and transforming data from the source systems, while interfaces are responsible for sending and receiving data to and from the SIEM server. Without connectors and interfaces, a SIEM cannot operate correctly and ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake. Reference:
SIEM server integration with Microsoft 365 services and applications
What Is SIEM Integration? 2024 Comprehensive Guide - SelectHub
SIEM Connector - docs.metallic.io
SIEM Connector
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?
- A. 192.168.19.0
- B. 192.168.19.16
- C. 192.168.19.64
- D. 192.168.19.32
Answer: B
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation. The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros. In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224. The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000 The logical AND operation gives us the network prefix:
Network prefix: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100000
To get the subnet address, we convert the network prefix back to decimal form:
Subnet address: 192.168.19.32
The subnet address is the first address in the subnet range. To find the last address in the subnet range, we flip the bits of the subnet mask and perform a logical OR operation with the network prefix:
Flipped subnet mask: 00000000.00000000.00000000.00011111 Logical OR: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00111111 The last address in the subnet range is:
Last address: 192.168.19.63
The subnet range is from 192.168.19.32 to 192.168.19.63. The host 192.168.19.36 belongs to this subnet. Therefore, the correct answer is B. 192.168.19.16, which is the second address in the subnet range.
:
IP Subnet Calculator
Subnet Calculator - IP and CIDR
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong? - VCEguide.com
NEW QUESTION # 88
What type of address translation does a NAT perform?
- A. Physical Io logical
- B. Logical to physical
- C. Public to private
- D. Private to public
Answer: D
Explanation:
NAT stands for Network Address Translation, which is a process that allows devices on a private network to communicate with devices on a public network, such as the Internet. NAT translates the private IP addresses of the devices on the private network to public IP addresses that can be routed on the public network. This way, multiple devices on the private network can share a single public IP address and access the Internet. NAT also provides security benefits, as it hides the internal network structure and IP addresses from the outside world. Reference: Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET), Fundamentals of Network Security, Network Address Translation (NAT)
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?
- A. NFS
- B. SNMP
- C. UDP
- D. MAC
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Application (Layer 7 or L7): This layer identifies and establishes availability of communication partners, determines resource availability, and synchronizes communication.
* Presentation (Layer 6 or L6): This layer provides coding and conversion functions (such as data representation, character conversion, data compression, and data encryption) to ensure that data sent from the Application layer of one system is compatible with the Application layer of the receiving system.
* Session (Layer 5 or L5): This layer manages communication sessions (service requests and service responses) between networked systems, including connection establishment, data transfer, and connection release.
* Transport (Layer 4 or L4): This layer provides transparent, reliable data transport and end-to-end transmission control.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 91
In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?
- A. weaponization
- B. delivery
- C. reconnaissance
- D. exploitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
"Weaponization: Next, attackers determine which methods to use to compromise a target endpoint. They may choose to embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files such as a PDF or Microsoft Word document or email message."
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?
- A. Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)
- B. Sandboxing
- C. Stateless packet inspection
- D. Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Host Intrusion Prevention Systems (HIPS) operate on endpoints to enforce security policies by monitoring system calls, file integrity, and configuration settings. HIPS can validate device compliance, including operating system versions and patch levels, before permitting network access. This capability prevents vulnerable or outdated devices from becoming attack vectors. Palo Alto Networks integrates HIPS functionalities in its endpoint security solutions, providing granular control to enforce organizational security standards and reduce risk from non-compliant endpoints. Unlike network-based inspection, HIPS works locally on hosts to stop threats at their origin.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?
- A. Pre-exploit protection
- B. Static
- C. Dynamic
- D. Bare-metal
Answer: C
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis is a method of malware analysis that executes the malware in a controlled environment and observes its behavior and effects. Dynamic analysis can reveal the malware's network activity, file system changes, registry modifications, and other indicators of compromise. Dynamic analysis is performed by Palo Alto Networks WildFire, a cloud-based service that analyzes unknown files and links from various sources, such as email attachments, web downloads, and firewall traffic. WildFire uses a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to detonate the submissions and generate detailed reports and verdicts. WildFire can also share the threat intelligence with other Palo Alto Networks products and partners to prevent future attacks. Reference: WildFire Overview, WildFire Features, WildFire Dynamic Analysis
NEW QUESTION # 95
What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?
- A. They are used for data storage in cloud environments.
- B. They serve as a template manager for software applications and services.
- C. They enable companies to use cloud-native tools and methodologies.
- D. They are used to orchestrate virtual machines (VMs) in cloud environments.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Containers encapsulate applications and their dependencies into lightweight, portable units that can run consistently across multiple environments. This abstraction supports cloud-native development by enabling microservices architectures, rapid deployment, and scaling within orchestration platforms like Kubernetes. Containers accelerate cloud migration by decoupling applications from infrastructure, facilitating automation, and continuous integration/continuous deployment (CI/CD) workflows. Palo Alto Networks addresses container security by integrating runtime protection, vulnerability scanning, and compliance enforcement within its Prisma Cloud platform, ensuring safe adoption of cloud-native tools and methodologies.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?
- A. Cloud-hosted
- B. Serverless
- C. Kubernetes
- D. Dockers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud-hosted refers to the deployment of traditional on-premises software on cloud-based servers. This approach allows organizations to run their applications in the cloud without re-architecting them for cloud-native environments.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?
- A. Credit card number
- B. Trade secret
- C. National security information
- D. A symmetric encryption key
Answer: A
Explanation:
A credit card number is an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network. PII, or personally identifiable information, is any information that can be used to identify an individual, either alone or in combination with other data. PII can be sensitive or non-sensitive, depending on the level of protection required and the potential harm if exposed. Sensitive PII includes data that can directly identify an individual and cause significant harm if leaked or stolen, such as financial information, medical records, or government-issued ID numbers. Non-sensitive PII includes data that is easily accessible from public sources and does not pose a high risk of identity theft, such as zip code, race, or gender. A credit card number is a sensitive PII because it can be used to access the cardholder's account, make fraudulent transactions, or steal their identity. Therefore, it is important to prevent credit card numbers from leaving the enterprise network, where they could be intercepted by hackers, malicious insiders, or third parties. To protect credit card numbers and other sensitive PII, enterprises should implement data security measures such as encryption, tokenization, masking, access control, auditing, and monitoring. Additionally, enterprises should comply with data privacy laws and standards that regulate the collection, use, and protection of PII, such as the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). Reference:
What is PII? Examples, laws, and standards | CSO Online
What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? | IBM
What Is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? Types and Examples
What is PII (personally identifiable information)? - Cloudflare
What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? - Data Privacy Manager
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?
- A. East-West traffic
- B. North-South traffic
- C. Interzone traffic
- D. Intrazone traffic
Answer: B
Explanation:
North-South traffic refers to the data packets that move between the virtualized environment and the external network, such as the internet or a traditional data center. This traffic typically involves requests from clients to access applications or services hosted on virtual machines (VMs) or containers, or responses from those VMs or containers to the clients. North-South traffic can also include management or monitoring traffic from external devices to the virtualized environment. Reference: Fundamentals of Cloud Security, East-West and North-South Traffic Security, What is the meaning / origin of the terms north-south and east-west traffic?
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?
- A. use of non-standard ports
- B. hiding within SSL encryption
- C. port hopping
- D. tunneling within commonly used services
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port hopping is a technique that changes protocols at random during a session to evade detection and analysis by security devices. Port hopping can be used by malware or attackers to communicate with command and control servers or to exfiltrate data. Port hopping makes it difficult to identify and block malicious traffic based on port numbers or signatures. Reference: Port Hopping, Ports Used for Management Functions, Adding a Custom Application/Ports to Security Policy
NEW QUESTION # 100
Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?
- A. sanctioned
- B. tolerated
- C. unsanctioned
- D. prohibited
Answer: A
Explanation:
A sanctioned application is an application that is approved by the IT department and meets the security and compliance requirements of the organization. Sanctioned applications are allowed to access the organization's network and data and are monitored and protected by the IT department. Examples of sanctioned applications are Office 365, Salesforce, and Zoom. Sanctioned applications are different from unsanctioned, prohibited, and tolerated applications, which are not approved by the IT department and may pose security risks to the organization. Unsanctioned applications are applications that are used by the employees without the IT department's knowledge or consent, such as Dropbox, Gmail, or Facebook. Prohibited applications are applications that are explicitly forbidden by the IT department, such as BitTorrent, Tor, or malware. Tolerated applications are applications that are not approved by the IT department, but are not blocked or restricted, such as Skype, Spotify, or YouTube. Reference: Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET), Cloud Security Fundamentals - Module 4: Cloud Security Best Practices, Application Visibility and Control
NEW QUESTION # 101
A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?
- A. SaaS
- B. PaaS
- C. CaaS
- D. IaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the NIST definition of cloud computing1, there are three service models for cloud computing: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS). In the SaaS model, the cloud provider delivers the software applications over the internet, and the users access them from various devices through a web browser or a program interface. The cloud provider manages the underlying infrastructure, including the servers, databases, and code of the applications. The users do not need to install, update, or maintain the software, and they only pay for the service they use. The scenario described in the question is an example of the SaaS model, as the user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure, and the vendor hosts and maintains the servers, databases, and code of that application. Reference:
SP 800-145, The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing | CSRC
Final Version of NIST Cloud Computing Definition Published
NIST Cloud Computing Program - NCCP | NIST
SaaS - User responsible for only the data, vendor responsible for rest
NEW QUESTION # 102
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?
- A. Segment
- B. Data
- C. Packet
- D. Frame
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses to the TCP segment (which now is called an IP packet) and notifies the server operating system that it has an outgoing message ready to be sent across the network.
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?
- A. Prisma Cloud
- B. Prisma Access
- C. Digital experience management
- D. Service connection
Answer: B
Explanation:
Prisma Access is a cloud-delivered security platform that provides policy enforcement, secure access, and threat prevention for mobile users and remote networks, ensuring consistent security regardless of location.
NEW QUESTION # 104
A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.
Which type of phishing attack does this represent?
- A. Vishing
- B. Pharming
- C. Angler phishing
- D. Whaling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Whaling is a targeted phishing attack aimed at high-profile individuals, such as executives. The attacker impersonates a trusted entity (e.g., IT department) to trick the executive into revealing sensitive credentials. This is a form of spear phishing specifically focused on "big fish" targets.
NEW QUESTION # 105
How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?
- A. It creates an encrypted connection to the company's data center.
- B. It performs SSL decryption to give visibility into user traffic.
- C. II prevents sensitive data from leaving the network.
- D. II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) is a platform that enables security teams to manage the lifecycle of threat intelligence, from aggregation to action. One of the key features of Cortex XSOAR TIM is that it automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators from various sources, such as threat feeds, open-source intelligence, internal data, and third-party integrations 1. Indicators are pieces of information that can be used to identify malicious activity, such as IP addresses, domains, URLs, hashes, etc. By automating the ingestion and aggregation of indicators, Cortex XSOAR TIM reduces the manual effort and time required to collect, validate, and prioritize threat data. It also enables analysts to have a unified view of the global threat landscape and the impact of threats on their network 1. Reference: 1: Threat Intelligence Management - Palo Alto Networks 2
NEW QUESTION # 106
What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)
- A. It cannot be detected by antivirus because of its masking techniques.
- B. It takes control of the operating system.
- C. It encrypts user data.
- D. It steals personal information.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A rootkit is a type of malware that enables cyber criminals to gain access to and infiltrate data from machines without being detected. It covers software toolboxes designed to infect computers, give the attacker remote control, and remain hidden for a long period of time1 One of the most prominent characteristics of a rootkit is that it cannot be detected by antivirus because of its masking techniques. A rootkit may be able to subvert the software that is intended to find it, such as by hooking system calls, modifying kernel objects, or tampering with the registry2 Another prominent characteristic of a rootkit is that it takes control of the operating system. A rootkit may install itself in the kernel or the firmware of the device, giving it the highest level of privilege and access. A rootkit may also replace the bootloader or the BIOS of the machine, making it difficult to remove. A rootkit can use its control over the operating system to launch other malware, such as ransomware, bots, keyloggers, or trojans34 Reference:
1: What Is a Rootkit? How to Defend and Stop Them? | Fortinet
2: Rootkit - Wikipedia
3: What Is a Rootkit? - Microsoft 365
4: What is Rootkit? Attack Definition & Examples - CrowdStrike
NEW QUESTION # 107
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