Latest [Feb 19, 2024] Realistic Verified CDIP Dumps
Pass AHIMA CDIP Exam Updated 140 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 80
When writing a compliant query, best practice is to
- A. use a yes/no query format for specificity of a diagnosis
- B. direct the physician to a specific diagnosis
- C. use the term "possible" to describe a condition or diagnosis when uncertain if the diagnosis is present
- D. include all relevant clinical indicators
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
One of the best practices for writing a compliant query is to include all relevant clinical indicators from the health record that support the need for clarification and the query options. Clinical indicators are objective and measurable signs, symptoms, laboratory results, diagnostic test results, medications, treatments, and other documented findings that are related to a specific diagnosis or condition. Including clinical indicators helps to provide the rationale for the query, avoid leading or suggesting a desired response, and ensure that the query is based on evidence and not assumptions. The other options are not best practices for writing a compliant query.
Directing the physician to a specific diagnosis is leading and noncompliant. Using the term "possible" to describe a condition or diagnosis when uncertain if the diagnosis is present is vague and imprecise. Using a yes/no query format for specificity of a diagnosis is discouraged, as it limits the provider's choices and may not capture the true clinical picture.
NEW QUESTION # 81
Which of the following is an example of a hospital-acquired condition when not present on admission?
- A. Pressure ulcer stage III
- B. Pressure ulcer stage II
- C. Iatrogenic pneumothorax with venous catheterization
- D. Iatrogenic pneumothorax with lung biopsy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A hospital-acquired condition (HAC) is an undesirable situation or condition that affects a patient and that arose during a stay in a hospital or medical facility. CMS has identified 14 categories of HACs for which it will not pay the higher DRG rate if the condition was not present on admission (POA). One of these categories is stage III and IV pressure ulcers. A pressure ulcer is damage to the skin and underlying tissue caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. Stage III pressure ulcers involve full-thickness skin loss with damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. The ulcer presents as a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissue.
A: Iatrogenic pneumothorax with lung biopsy is not a HAC, because it is not included in the CMS HAC list.
Iatrogenic pneumothorax is a HAC only when it occurs with venous catheterization.
B: Iatrogenic pneumothorax with venous catheterization is a HAC, but it may be present on admission if the venous catheterization was performed before the admission to the hospital.
C: Pressure ulcer stage II is not a HAC, because only stage III and IV pressure ulcers are included in the CMS HAC list. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis, dermis, or both. The ulcer is superficial and presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Hospital Acquired Conditions | CMS ICD-10 HAC List | CMS Bedsores (pressure ulcers) - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic
NEW QUESTION # 82
A key physician approaches the director of the coding department about the new emphasis associated with clinical documentation integrity (CDI). The physician does not support the program and believes the initiative will encourage inappropriate billing.
How should the director respond to the concerns?
- A. Involve the physician advisor/champion in addressing the medical staff's concerns
- B. Inform the physician that changes must be made
- C. Refer the physician to the finance department to discuss required billing changes
- D. Develop an administrative panel to oversee CDI process
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The director should involve the physician advisor/champion in addressing the medical staff's concerns because the physician advisor/champion is a key member of the CDI team who can provide clinical expertise, education, and leadership to promote CDI among physicians. The physician advisor/champion can help to explain the goals and benefits of CDI, such as improving patient care quality, accuracy of documentation, and appropriate reimbursement. The physician advisor/champion can also address any misconceptions or fears that the physicians may have about CDI, such as encouraging inappropriate billing or increasing their workload.
The physician advisor/champion can serve as a liaison between the CDI team and the medical staff, and foster a culture of collaboration and trust.
References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline (https://www.ahima.org/media/1z0x0x1a/cdip-exam-content-outline.pdf) CDIP Exam Preparation Guide (https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077)
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of these medical conditions would a clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) expect to be treated with Levophed?
- A. Acute respiratory failure
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Acute kidney failure
- D. Septic shock
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Levophed is a brand name of norepinephrine, a medication that is similar to adrenaline and acts as a vasopressor, meaning that it constricts blood vessels and increases blood pressure. Levophed is indicated to raise blood pressure in adult patients with severe, acute hypotension (low blood pressure) that can occur with certain medical conditions or surgical procedures1. One of these conditions is septic shock, which is a life-threatening complication of sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response to infection. Septic shock is characterized by persistent hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, along with signs of organ dysfunction and tissue hypoperfusion. Levophed is used as a first-line vasopressor agent in septic shock to restore adequate perfusion pressure and tissue oxygenation.
Acute respiratory failure, multiple sclerosis, and acute kidney failure are not indications for Levophed treatment. Acute respiratory failure is a condition in which the lungs cannot provide enough oxygen to the blood or remove enough carbon dioxide from the blood. It can be caused by various lung diseases, injuries, or infections. The treatment of acute respiratory failure depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition, but it may include oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, medications to treat infections or inflammation, or other supportive measures. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, causing inflammation, demyelination, and axonal damage. The symptoms of multiple sclerosis vary depending on the location and extent of the nerve damage, but they may include vision problems, numbness, weakness, fatigue, cognitive impairment, or pain. The treatment of multiple sclerosis aims to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses, slow the progression of disability, and manage the symptoms. It may include immunomodulatory drugs, corticosteroids, symptomatic medications, physical therapy, or other interventions. Acute kidney failure is a condition in which the kidneys suddenly lose their ability to filter waste products and fluids from the blood. It can be caused by various factors that impair the blood flow to the kidneys, damage the kidney tissue, or block the urine output. The symptoms of acute kidney failure may include decreased urine output, fluid retention, nausea, confusion, or shortness of breath. The treatment of acute kidney failure depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition, but it may include fluid management, electrolyte replacement, dialysis, medications to treat infections or inflammation, or other supportive measures.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530 Levophed Uses, Side Effects & Warnings - Drugs.com Levophed (Norepinephrine Bitartrate): Uses, Dosage ... - RxList Levarterenol, Levophed (norepinephrine) dosing ... - Medscape
[Septic Shock: Practice Essentials ... - Medscape Reference]
[Surviving Sepsis Campaign: International Guidelines for ... - PubMed]
[Acute respiratory failure: MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia]
[Multiple sclerosis - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic]
[Acute kidney failure - Symptoms and causes - Mayo Clinic]
NEW QUESTION # 84
A hospital noticed a 30% denial rate in Medicare claims due to lack of clinical documentation, placing the hospital at risk of multiple Medicare violations. What step should the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager take to help avoid future Medicare violations?
Collaborate with physician advisor/champion and revenue cycle manager
Instruct the billing department to write off claims with insufficient documentation
- A. Prevent submission of claims for improper documentation
- B. Assign pre-billing claim review duties to physicians
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The step that the clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager should take to help avoid future Medicare violations is to collaborate with physician advisor/champion and revenue cycle manager. The physician advisor/champion can help with educating and engaging the physicians on the importance and impact of clinical documentation on coding, reimbursement, quality measures, compliance, and patient care. The revenue cycle manager can help with analyzing and monitoring the denial trends and patterns, identifying and resolving the root causes of denials, implementing corrective actions and preventive measures, and ensuring timely and accurate claim submission and appeal processes. References: :
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf :
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 85
When benchmarking with outside organizations, the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) must determine if the organization is benchmarking with which of the following criteria?
- A. Hospital within its region
- B. Hospital within its state
- C. Hospitals that are its peers
- D. Hospital within its county
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
When benchmarking with outside organizations, the clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) must determine if the organization is benchmarking with hospitals that are its peers because peer hospitals have similar characteristics such as size, location, teaching status, case mix index, and payer mix. Benchmarking with peer hospitals allows for a more accurate and meaningful comparison of performance indicators and outcomes. (CDIP Exam Preparation Guide) References:
CDIP Exam Content Outline1
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide2
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following criteria for clinical documentation means the content of the record is trustworthy, safe, and yielding the same result when repeated?
- A. Precise
- B. Legible
- C. Complete
- D. Reliable
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
According to AHIMA, clinical documentation is at the core of every patient encounter and it must be meaningful to accurately reflect the patient's disease burden and scope of services provided. In order to be meaningful, the documentation must be clear, consistent, complete, precise, reliable, timely, and legible1. Reliability is one of the criteria for clinical documentation that means the content of the record is trustworthy, safe, and yielding the same result when repeated1. Reliability ensures that the documentation is consistent with the clinical evidence and reasoning, and that it can be verified by other sources or methods. Reliability also implies that the documentation is free from errors, omissions, contradictions, or ambiguities that could compromise its validity or usefulness1.
References:
Clinical Documentation Integrity Education & Training | AHIMA1
NEW QUESTION # 87
A patient falls off a ladder and undergoes a right femur procedure. Three weeks later, the patient returns to the hospital for removal of the external fixation device. The ICD-10-CM 7th character code value should indicate
- A. subsequent
- B. aftercare
- C. sequela
- D. initial
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The ICD-10-CM 7th character code value should indicate aftercare for a patient who falls off a ladder and undergoes a right femur procedure, and then returns to the hospital for removal of the external fixation device.
Aftercare codes are used to capture encounters for follow-up care after completed treatment of an injury or condition, such as removal of external fixation devices, casts, or pins. Aftercare codes are not used for subsequent encounters for complications or infections related to the injury or condition5 References: 1:
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf 5:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 88
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) metrics recently showed a drastic drop in the physician query rate.
What might this indicate to the CDI manager?
- A. The loss of a large volume of patients has impacted workflow
- B. The program is successful because documentation has improved
- C. CDI staff need education on identifying query opportunities
- D. The decrease in hospital census has caused a lack of query opportunities
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A drastic drop in the physician query rate might indicate to the CDI manager that the CDI staff need education on identifying query opportunities. The physician query rate is a metric that measures the percentage of records that have at least one query sent by the CDI staff to clarify or improve the documentation. A high query rate may reflect a high level of documentation quality issues or a high level of CDI staff vigilance and expertise. A low query rate may reflect a low level of documentation quality issues or a low level of CDI staff awareness and competence 2. Therefore, a drastic drop in the query rate could suggest that the CDI staff are missing some query opportunities or are not following the query policies and procedures. The CDI manager should investigate the reasons for the drop and provide education and feedback to the CDI staff on how to identify and address query opportunities effectively and compliantly 3.
References: 1: AHIMA CDIP Exam Prep, Fourth Edition, p. 133 4 2: Understanding CDI Metrics - AHIMA 2 3: The Natural History of CDI Programs: A Metric-Based Model 5
NEW QUESTION # 89
The correct coding for insertion of a dialysis catheter into the right internal jugular vein with the tip ending in the cavoatrial junction is
- A. 05HP33Z Insertion of infusion device into right external jugular vein, percutaneous approach
- B. 05HM33Z Insertion of infusion device into right internal jugular vein, percutaneous approach
- C. 02H633Z Insertion of infusion device into right atrium, percutaneous approach
- D. 02HV33Z Insertion of infusion device into superior vena cava, percutaneous approach
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the ICD-10-PCS Reference Manual 2023, the insertion of a dialysis catheter into the right internal jugular vein with the tip ending in the cavoatrial junction is coded as follows1:
The first character 0 indicates the Medical and Surgical section.
The second character 5 indicates the Extracorporeal or Systemic Assistance and Performance root operation, which is defined as "Putting in or on a device that completely takes over a body function by extracorporeal means"1.
The third character H indicates the Central Vein body system, which includes the internal jugular vein1.
The fourth character M indicates the Infusion Device device value, which is defined as "A device that is inserted into a body part to deliver fluids or other substances to a body part or into the circulation"1.
The fifth character 3 indicates the Right Internal Jugular Vein body part value, which is the specific site of the procedure1.
The sixth character 3 indicates the Percutaneous approach, which is defined as "Entry, by puncture or minor incision, of instrumentation through the skin or mucous membrane and any other body layers necessary to reach and visualize the site of the procedure"1.
The seventh character Z indicates No Qualifier, which means there is no additional information necessary to complete the code1.
Therefore, the correct coding for insertion of a dialysis catheter into the right internal jugular vein with the tip ending in the cavoatrial junction is 05HM33Z.
References:
ICD-10-PCS Reference Manual 20231
NEW QUESTION # 90
A pressure ulcer stage III is documented in the progress note. The clinical documentation integrity practitioner (CDIP) has queried the attending regarding the present on admission status of the pressure ulcer but has not received a response in an appropriate time frame. What should the CDIP do next?
- A. Query surgical consultant
- B. Escalate issue to medical staff leadership
- C. Escalate issue to hospital administration
- D. Query wound care nurse
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA-ACDIS Practice Brief, a query escalation policy should describe how to handle situations in which an answer is not received, an inappropriate answer or comment is provided, etc. The escalation policy should address when the issue is brought to the physician advisor, the department director, or administration with defined actions as to the responsibilities at each level. The policies should reflect a method of response that can realistically occur for the organization1. In this case, since the attending physician has not responded to the query in an appropriate time frame, the CDIP should escalate the issue to the medical staff leadership, such as the chief medical officer, the department chair, or the physician advisor, who can facilitate communication and education with the attending physician and ensure documentation integrity and compliance1.
References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA1
NEW QUESTION # 91
The clinical documentation integrity (CDI) manager reviewed all payer refined-diagnosis related groups (APR-DRG) benchmarking data and has identified potential opportunities for improvement. The manager hopes to develop a work plan to target severity of illness (SOI)/risk of mortality (ROM) by service line and providers. How can the manager gain more information about this situation?
- A. Audit cases for missed diagnosis by the CDI practitioner to target in the education plan
- B. Audit cases that have high SOI/ROM assigned by coders for education and follow-up
- C. Audit focused APR-DRGs and develop education plan for CDI team and physicians
- D. Audit focused cases by physicians that have a higher SOI/ROM for education plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
APR-DRGs are a patient classification system that assigns each inpatient stay to one of more than 300 base APR-DRGs, and then further stratifies each base APR-DRG into four levels of severity of illness (SOI) and risk of mortality (ROM), based on the number, nature, and interaction of complications and comorbidities (CCs) and major CCs (MCCs). SOI reflects the extent of physiologic decompensation or organ system loss of function, while ROM reflects the likelihood of dying. Both SOI and ROM are used to adjust payment rates, quality indicators, and performance measures for hospitals and other healthcare providers.
The CDI manager can gain more information about the potential opportunities for improvement by auditing focused APR-DRGs that have a high impact on SOI/ROM levels, such as those that have a large variation in relative weights across the four severity levels, or those that have a high frequency or volume of cases. The audit can help identify the documentation gaps, inconsistencies, or inaccuracies that may affect the assignment of SOI/ROM levels, such as missing, vague, or conflicting diagnoses, procedures, or clinical indicators. The audit can also help evaluate the CDI team's performance in terms of query rate, response rate, agreement rate, and accuracy rate. Based on the audit findings, the CDI manager can develop an education plan for both the CDI team and the physicians to address the specific documentation improvement areas and provide feedback and guidance on best practices.
A: Audit cases for missed diagnosis by the CDI practitioner to target in the education plan. This is not the best way to gain more information about the situation, because it may not capture all the factors that affect SOI/ROM levels, such as procedures, clinical indicators, or interactions among diagnoses. It may also focus only on the CDI practitioner's performance, without considering the physician's role in documentation quality and completeness.
B: Audit focused cases by physicians that have a higher SOI/ROM for education plan. This is not a valid way to gain more information about the situation, because it may not identify the documentation improvement opportunities for cases that have a lower SOI/ROM than expected, based on their clinical complexity and acuity. It may also create a perception of bias or favoritism among physicians, if only some are selected for audit and education.
C: Audit cases that have high SOI/ROM assigned by coders for education and follow-up. This is not a reliable way to gain more information about the situation, because it may not reflect the true SOI/ROM levels of the cases, if there are errors or discrepancies in coding or grouping. It may also overlook the documentation improvement opportunities for cases that have low SOI/ROM assigned by coders, despite having high clinical complexity and acuity.
References:
CDIP Exam Preparation Guide, 2021 Edition. AHIMA Press. ISBN: 9781584268530
3M™ All Patient Refined Diagnosis Related Groups (APR DRGs) | 3M United States Q&A: Understanding SOI and ROM in the APR-DRG system | ACDIS Use SOI/ROM scores to enhance CDI program effectiveness | ACDIS
NEW QUESTION # 92
Reviewing and analyzing physician query content on a regular basis
- A. aids in discussion between physician and reviewer
- B. assists in identifying gaps in skills and knowledge
- C. helps to calculate query response rate
- D. facilitates physician data collection
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Reviewing and analyzing physician query content on a regular basis assists in identifying gaps in skills and knowledge of the clinical documentation integrity practitioners (CDIPs) and the providers. By evaluating the quality, accuracy, appropriateness, and effectiveness of the queries, the CDIPs can identify areas of improvement, education, and feedback for themselves and the providers. Reviewing and analyzing physician query content can also help to ensure compliance with industry standards and best practices, as well as to monitor query outcomes and trends2 References: 1:
https://www.ahima.org/media/owmhxbv1/cdip_contentoutline_2023_final.pdf 2:
https://my.ahima.org/store/product?id=67077
NEW QUESTION # 93
A 77-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted as an inpatient with severe shortness of breath. The patient is placed on oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. History reveals that the patient is on oxygen nightly at home. CXR is unremarkable. The most compliant query is
- A. Patient has COPD and is on oxygen every night at home and has been on continuous oxygen since admission, please document chronic respiratory failure, hypoxia, acute on chronic respiratory failure.
- B. Patient has COPD, and is on nocturnal oxygen at home and is on continuous oxygen since admission.
Please order further tests so the patient's severity of illness can be captured with the most accurate coding assignment. - C. Patient has COPD, and is on nocturnal oxygen at home and is on continuous oxygen since admission.
Please indicate if you are treating one of these diagnoses: chronic respiratory failure, acute respiratory failure, acute on chronic respiratory failure, unable to determine, other. - D. Patient has COPD and is on oxygen every night at home and has been on continuous oxygen since admission. Based on these indications, please document chronic respiratory failure, acute respiratory failure, acute on chronic respiratory failure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Query Practice Brief, a compliant query should provide multiple choice answer options that are supported by clinical indicators and include a non-leading query statement1. Option C meets these criteria, as it provides a list of possible diagnoses that are relevant to the patient's condition and asks the provider to indicate which one they are treating. Option C also does not imply or suggest a preferred answer or outcome, and allows the provider to choose unable to determine or other if none of the listed options apply. Option A is not compliant, as it does not provide any answer options and implies that the provider should order more tests to capture a higher severity of illness. Option B is not compliant, as it provides only one answer option and suggests that the provider should document it based on the clinical indicators. Option D is not compliant, as it provides only one answer option and implies that the provider should document it based on the indications. References:
Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice (2019 Update) - AHIMA
NEW QUESTION # 94
When are concurrent queries initiated?
- A. After discharge of the patient
- B. Before patient is admitted
- C. While the patient is hospitalized
- D. After the health record has been coded
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 95
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