Latest [Jan 04, 2024] NCLEX-RN Exam Dumps - Valid and Updated Dumps
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NCLEX-RN exam is computer-adaptive, which means that the difficulty of the questions is based on the test-taker's performance. NCLEX-RN exam consists of multiple-choice and alternate-format questions, including select-all-that-apply, fill-in-the-blank, and ordered response. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to test a broad range of nursing knowledge, including anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, nursing procedures, and patient care.
Preparing for the NCLEX-RN exam is a significant undertaking, and many nursing graduates spend months studying and preparing for the exam. There are many resources available to help nursing graduates prepare for the exam, including review books, study guides, and online practice exams. Many nursing programs also offer NCLEX-RN preparation courses to help their students prepare for the exam.
In order to be eligible to take the NCLEX-RN exam, individuals must have completed an accredited nursing program and meet the requirements for licensure in their state or territory. This typically includes passing a background check and providing proof of graduation from an accredited nursing program.
NEW QUESTION # 457
A 48-hour-old male infant is ordered to have phototherapy. When his mother questions the nurse about its purpose, the nurse explains that phototherapy:
- A. Prevents the development of ophthalmia neonatorum
- B. Breaks down bilirubin in the skin into substances that can be excreted in stool or urine
- C. Increases levels of unconjugated bilirubin, thereby preventing kernicterus (brain damage)
- D. Assists the baby's clotting mechanism
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) The instillation of erythromycin ophthalmic preparation, not phototherapy, prevents ophthalmia neonatorum. (B) The administration of vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON) assists the infant's clotting mechanism. (C) Excessive bilirubin accumulates when the infant's liver cannothandle the increased load caused by the breakdown of red blood cells postnatally. This excessive bilirubin seeps out of the blood and into the tissues, staining them yellow. Phototherapy accelerates the removal of bilirubin from the skin by breaking it down into substances that can be excreted in stool or urine. (D) Phototherapy decreases levels of unconjugated bilirubin, thereby preventing kernicterus.
NEW QUESTION # 458
The nurse is preparing a 6-year-old child for an IV insertion. Which one of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate when preparing a child for a potentially painful procedure?
- A. "Some say this feels like a pinch or a bug bite. You tell me what it feels like."
- B. "This is a terrible procedure, so don't look."
- C. "This will hurt only a little; try to be a big boy."
- D. "This is going to hurt a lot; close your eyes and hold my hand."
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A)
Educating the child about the pain may lessen anxiety. The child should be prepared for a potentially painful procedure but avoid suggesting pain. The nurse should allow the child his own sensory perception and evaluation of the procedure. (B) The nurse should avoid absolute descriptive statements and allow the child his own perception of the procedure.
(C)
The nurse should avoid evaluative statements or descriptions and give the child control in describing his reactions. (D) False statements regarding a painful procedure will cause a loss of trust between the child and the nurse.
NEW QUESTION # 459
Discharge teaching for the client who has a total gastrectomy should include which of the following?
- A. Need to eat three full meals with plenty of fiber per day
- B. B12 injections needed for the rest of the client's life
- C. Follow-up visits every 3 weeks for the first 6 months
- D. Need for the client to increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) There will be no need to increase fluid intake excessively, because dumping syndrome could present a problem. (B) Followup visits every 3 weeks are not a standard recommendation. Follow-up visits will be highly individualized. (C) With removal of the stomach, intrinsic factor will no longer be produced. Intrinsic factor is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption. Parenteral injections of B12 will be needed on a monthly basis for the rest of the person's life. (D) Smaller, more frequent meals, rather than large, bulky meals, are recommended to prevent problems with dumping syndrome.
NEW QUESTION # 460
The nurse should know that according to current thinking, the most important prognostic factor for a client with breast cancer is:
- A. Tumor size
- B. Client's previous history of disease
- C. Client's level of estrogen-progesterone receptor assays
- D. Axillary node status
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Although tumor size is a factor in classification of cancer growth, it is not an indicator of lymph node spread. (B) Axillary node status is the most important indicator for predicting how far the cancer has spread. If the lymph nodes are positive for cancer cells, the prognosis is poorer. (C) The client's previous history of cancer puts her at an increased risk for breast cancer recurrence, especially if the cancer occurred in the other breast. It does not predict prognosis, however. (D) The estrogen-progesterone assay test is used to identify present tumors being fedfrom an estrogen site within the body. Some breast cancers grow rapidly as long as there is an estrogen supply such as from the ovaries. The estrogen-progesterone assay test does not indicate the prognosis.
NEW QUESTION # 461
A 2-year-old child is recovering from surgery. Considering growth and development according to Erikson, the nurse identifies which of the following play activities as most appropriate?
- A. Assembling a puzzle with large pieces
- B. Being taken for a wheelchair ride
- C. Watching Sesame Street on television
- D. Listening to a story about the Muppets
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) A 2-year-old child is in the stage of autonomy, according to Erikson. Assembling a puzzle with large pieces enables her to "do it herself." (B) A wheelchair ride would probably be fun, but it is not directed toward helping the child to achieve autonomy. (C) Listening to a story may be fun and educational, but it is not directed toward helping the child to achieve autonomy. (D) Watching television may be a favorite activity, but it does not foster autonomy.
NEW QUESTION # 462
A 3-month-old infant has had a unilateral cleft lip repair. He has resumed feedings of oral formula. The nurse should feed the infant with:
- A. Syringe
- B. Nipple and bottle
- C. A straw and cup
- D. Gavage tube
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) A gavage tube may damage suture line. It is the most invasive and should be the last measure. (B) A nipple and bottle require sucking, which may damage sutures. (C) A 3month-old infant is not able to drink from a straw. (D) A syringe allows for the formula to be placed to the side and back of the mouth. This minimizes the amount of sucking needed.
NEW QUESTION # 463
A 45-year-old male client was admitted to a chemical dependency treatment center following legal problems related to alcohol abuse. He states, "I know that alcohol is a problem for some people, but I can stop whenever I want to. I'm never sick or miss work, and no one can complain about me." During the initial assessment, the best response by the nurse would be:
- A. "The fact is you are an alcoholic or you wouldn't be here."
- B. "If you can stop drinking when you want to, why don't you stop?"
- C. "I understand it took strength to admit yourself to the unit, and I will do my part to help you to stay alcohol- free."
- D. "It's good that you can stop drinking when you want to."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Direct confrontation initially is nontherapeutic and may result in the client becoming frustrated and wanting to leave. (B) A positive, supportive attitude builds trust, and identifying positive strength raises self-esteem. Offering help allows the client to feel that he is not alone in dealing with problems. (C) Asking the client why or to give an explanation for his behavior puts him in a position of having to justify his behavior to the nurse. (D) Giving approval or placing a value on feelings or a behavior may limit the client's freedom to behave in a way that may displease another. This response may lead to seeking praise instead of progress.
NEW QUESTION # 464
A client at 6 months' gestation complains of tiredness and dizziness. Her hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL, and her hematocrit value is 32%. Her nutritional intake is assessed as sufficient. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A. No problem indicated
- B. Fatigue due to stress
- C. Iron-deficiency anemia
- D. Physiological anemia
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) This clinical situation is indicative of iron-deficiency anemia because the client has inadequate nutritional intake. Her blood volume is increasing faster than her red blood cell volume. Anemia is present in the second trimester when the hemoglobin level is <10.5 and the hematocrit value falls below 35%. She needs increased iron supplements with follow-up. (B) The client's values are below levels for physiological anemia. (C) The client is fatigued because of a low hemoglobin level. (D) Her hemoglobin level is low and will probably decrease even more when the blood volume peaks at 28 weeks.
NEW QUESTION # 465
An infant with a congenital heart defect is being discharged with an order for the administration of digoxin elixir every 12 hours. The parents need to be taught when administering digoxin to the infant that:
- A. If the infant vomits two or more consecutive doses or becomes listless or anorexic, notify the physician
- B. They need to mix it with formula so the infant swallows it easily
- C. If the infant vomits within 30 minutes of the digoxin administration, repeat the dose
- D. If a dose of digoxin is skipped for more than 6 hours, a new timetable for administration must be developed
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Occasionally the child may vomit. They should not repeat the dose because the amount of digoxin that was absorbed is un-known, and serum levels of digoxin that are too high are more dangerous than those that are temporarily too low. (B) To ensure that the entire dose of digoxin is received, never mix it with food or formula. (C) Vomiting, anorexia, and listlessness are all signs of digoxin toxicity and should be reported to the physician immediately. (D) If a dose is forgotten for more than 6 hours, the nurse should advise the parents to skip that dose and to continue the next dose as scheduled.
NEW QUESTION # 466
A client reports to the nurse that the voices are practically nonstop and that he needs to leave the hospital immediately to find his girlfriend and kill her. The best verbal response to the client by the nurse at this time is:
- A. "I understand that the voices are real to you, but I want you to know I don't hear them. They are a symptom of your illness."
- B. "You can't leave here. This unit is locked and the doctor has not ordered your discharge."
- C. "We will have to put you in seclusion and restraints for a while. You could hurt someone with thoughts like that."
- D. "Just don't pay attention to the voices. They'll go away after some medication."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This response validates the client's experience and presents reality to him. (B) This nontherapeutic response minimizes and dismisses the client's verbalized experience. (C) This response can be interpreted by a paranoid client as a threat, thereby increasing the client's potential for violence and loss of control. (D) This response is also threatening. The client's behavior does not call for restraints because he has not lost control or hurt anyone. If seclusion or restraints were indicated, the nurse should never confront the client alone.
NEW QUESTION # 467
A female client at 10 weeks' gestation complains to her physician of slight vaginal bleeding and mild cramps. On examination, her physician determines that her cervix is closed. The client is exhibiting signs of:
- A. An inevitable abortion
- B. An incomplete abortion
- C. A missed abortion
- D. A threatened abortion
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) An inevitable abortion includes the signs of cervical dilation and effacement as well as pain and bleeding. (B) A threatened abortion is a condition in which intrauterine bleeding occurs early in pregnancy, the cervix remains undilated, and the uterine contents are not necessarily expelled. (C) An incomplete abortion occurs when some portions of the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. (D) A missed abortion occurs when the embryo dies in utero and is retained in the uterus.
NEW QUESTION # 468
A client who is a breast-feeding mother develops mastitis. The clinical signs and symptoms of mastitis include:
- A. Cracked nipple with complaints of soreness
- B. Marked engorgement and breast pain
- C. Elevated temperature and general malaise
- D. Marked engorgement, elevated temperature, chills, and breast pain with an area that is red and hardened
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Mastitis is a bacterial inflammation of the breast tissue found primarily in breast-feeding mothers. The bacteria usually enter the breast through a cracked nipple, or the infection results from stasis of milk behind a blocked duct. (B) With breast engorgement during breast-feeding, there may be marked breast pain. This is not necessarily a sign of infection. (C) Women may become ill during breast-feeding with other bacterial or viral infections that are not related to mastitis. (D) Improper care of the nipples or improper positioning of the infant during breastfeeding may result in cracked or sore nipples.
NEW QUESTION # 469
In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate (MgSO4), which of the following might indicate that the client was developing MgSO4 toxicity?
- A. A 21 proteinuria value
- B. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
- C. Respirations of 12 breaths/min
- D. A 31 patellar tendon reflex
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Diminished (not accentuated) patellar tendon reflex is a sign of developing MgSO4 toxicity. A value of 21 is considered a normal tendon reflex; 3+ is considered brisker than normal. (B) MgSO4 is a central nervous system (CNS) depressant. It also relaxes smooth muscle. If the respiratory rate is <16 bpm magnesium toxicity may be developing. (C) Urine output of 40mL/hr is enough to allow elimination of toxic levels of magnesium.
Urinary output of <100 mL in a 4-hour period may result in toxic levels of magnesium. (D) Presence of protein in the urine is a symptom of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), a clinical syndrome for which magnesium sulfate is frequently used in medical management. Protein in the urine is not induced by magnesium sulfate intake.
NEW QUESTION # 470
A 44-year-old female client is receiving external radiation to her scapula for metastasis of breast cancer.
Teaching related to skin care for the client would include which of the following?
- A. Encourage her to wear a tight-fitting vest to support her scapula.
- B. Teach her to completely clean the skin to remove all ointments and markings after each treatment.
- C. Teach her to cover broken skin in the treated area with a medicated ointment.
- D. Encourage her to avoid direct sunlight on the area being treated.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The skin in a treatment area should be rinsed with water and patted dry. Markings should be left intact, and the skin should not be scrubbed. (B) Clients should avoid putting any creams or lotions on the treated area.
This could interfere with treatment. (C) Radiation therapy clients should wear loose-fitting clothes and avoid tight, irritating fabrics. (D) The area of skin being treated is sensitive to sunlight, and the client should take care to prevent sun damage by avoiding direct sunlight and covering the area when she is in the sun.
NEW QUESTION # 471
A client's physician has prescribed theophylline (Theo- Dur) to help control the bronchospasm associated with the client's COPD. Instructions that should be given to the client include:
- A. "Cigarette smoking may significantly increase the risk for theophylline toxicity.''
- B. "Do not take your medicine if your pulse is less than 60 beats per minute.''
- C. "Take this medication on an empty stomach.''
- D. "Call your physician if you develop palpitations, dizziness, or restlessness.''
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Indications of theophylline toxicity include palpitations, dizziness, restlessness, nausea, vomiting, shakiness, and anorexia. (B) Cigarette smoking significantly lowers theophylline plasma levels. (C) Theophylline should be taken with food to decrease stomach upset. (D) These instructions are appropriate for someone taking digoxin.
NEW QUESTION # 472
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