[UPDATED 2022] Getting CISSP Certification Made Easy!
CISSP Exam Crack Test Engine Dumps Training With 1481 Questions
How to earn MCISSP credential?
The candidate must earn 40 continuing education units (CEUs) for the MCISSP credential. The CEUs may be earned through participation in the ISSA-certified training course, obtaining CEUs from any other Information Systems Security Association (ISSA) member, obtaining certification credits for passing the exam, or through participating in many other online sites.
The Master level provides a well-rounded view of the entire field of information security and prepares professionals to step into security executive positions as well as pursuing the CISSP (ISC)2. The candidate must have either a minimum of five years professional experience in two or more areas of information security; or one year of experience in two or more areas of information security and a four-year college degree. As the MCISSP has broadened its reach, it can now be achieved by those who hold this credential and no prior professional-level certifications.
Three new specialties were added to give depth to students' profession knowledge, which was not previously seen with the MCSE speciality.
What is the SAT Program?
One area of concern for all organizations is ensuring that their human assets are well-educated in security practices and procedures. ISSA partners with the International Association of Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialists (IACAS) to offer Security Awareness Training (SAT) programs that are designed, delivered, and managed by the ISSA. The SAT program is based on the Delphi technique which is a proven method for conducting an anonymous survey. The Delphi technique uses small, random groups of individuals to create opinions, forecasts and trends that are better informed than those of any individual person.
NEW QUESTION 516
Which security model introduces access to objects only through programs?
- A. The Clark-Wilson model
- B. The information flow model
- C. The Bell-LaPadula model
- D. The Biba model
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Clark-Wilson model, the subject no longer has direct access to objects but
instead must access them through programs (well -formed transactions).
The Clark-Wilson integrity model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity
policy for a computing system.
The model is primarily concerned with formalizing the notion of information integrity. Information
integrity is maintained by preventing corruption of data items in a system due to either error or
malicious intent. An integrity policy describes how the data items in the system should be kept
valid from one state of the system to the next and specifies the capabilities of various principals in
the system. The model defines enforcement rules and certification rules.
Clark-Wilson is more clearly applicable to business and industry processes in which the integrity
of the information content is paramount at any level of classification.
Integrity goals of Clark-Wilson model:
Prevent unauthorized users from making modification (Only this one is addressed by the Biba
model).
Separation of duties prevents authorized users from making improper modifications.
Well formed transactions: maintain internal and external consistency i.e. it is a series of operations
that are carried out to transfer the data from one consistent state to the other.
The following are incorrect answers:
The Biba model is incorrect. The Biba model is concerned with integrity and controls access to
objects based on a comparison of the security level of the subject to that of the object.
The Bell-LaPdaula model is incorrect. The Bell-LaPaula model is concerned with confidentiality
and controls access to objects based on a comparison of the clearence level of the subject to the
classification level of the object.
The information flow model is incorrect. The information flow model uses a lattice where objects
are labelled with security classes and information can flow either upward or at the same level. It is
similar in framework to the Bell-LaPadula model.
References:
ISC2 Official Study Guide, Pages 325 - 327
AIO3, pp. 284 - 287
AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 338 - 342)
AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 341 - 344)
Wikipedia at: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clark-Wilson_model
NEW QUESTION 517
Which of the following Common Data Network Services is used to share data files and subdirectories on file servers?
- A. Mail services.
- B. Client/Server services.
- C. File services.
- D. Print services.
Answer: C
Explanation:
File services share data files and subdirectories on file servers.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 99.
NEW QUESTION 518
*Directive controls are a form of change management policy and procedures. Which of the following subsections are recommended as part of the change management process?
- A. Categorize Information System (IS)
- B. Build and test
- C. Implement security controls
- D. Select security controls
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=9gCn86CmsNQC&pg=PA570&lpg=PA570& dq=CISSP+Directive+controls+are+a+form+of+change+management+policy+and+procedures.+Which+o
&source=bl&ots=riGvVpSS3E&sig=ACfU3U3dLYheW_GfTZcAYfN97fnDFlMmZg&hl=en&sa=X& ved=2ahUKEwjukoqK96npAhULtRoKHZEpBmcQ6AEwAHoECBQQAQ#v=onepage& q=CISSP%20Directive%20controls%20are%20a%20form%20of%20change%20management%20policy
&f=false
NEW QUESTION 519
Which of the following is a canon of the (ISC)2 Code of Ethics?
- A. Perform all professional activities and duties in accordance with aM applicable laws and the highest ethical standards.
- B. Cooperate with others in the interchange of knowledge and ideas for mutual security.
- C. Provide diligent and competent service to principals.
- D. Integrity first, association before serf, and excellence in all we do
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 520
What does secure authentication with logging provide?
- A. Access accountability
- B. Data integrity
- C. Segregation of duties
- D. Encryption logging format
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 521
A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is based on
- A. a review of the business processes and procedures.
- B. the policy and procedures manual.
- C. a standard checklist of required items and objectives.
- D. an existing BCP from a similar organization.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 522
The definition A relatively small amount (when compared to primary memory) of very high speed RAM, which holds the instructions and data from primary memory, that has a high probability of being accessed during the currently executing portion of a program refers to what category of computer memory?
- A. Secondary
- B. Virtual
- C. Real
- D. Cache
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cache logic attempts to predict which instructions and data in main (primary) memory will be used by a currently executing program. It then moves these items to the higher speed cache in anticipation of the CPU requiring these programs and data. Properly designed caches can significantly reduce the apparent main memory access time and thus increase the speed of program execution.
*Answer secondary memory is a slower memory (such as a magnetic disk) that provides non-volatile storage.
*Real or primary memory is directly addressable by the CPU and is used for the storage of instructions and data associated with the program that is being executed. This memory is usually high-speed, Random Access Memory (RAM).
*Answer virtual memory uses secondary memory in conjunction with primary memory to present the CPU with a larger, apparent address space of the real memory locations.
NEW QUESTION 523
Which type of fire extinguisher is most appropriate for a digital information processing facility?
- A. Type D
- B. Type A
- C. Type C
- D. Type B
Answer: C
Explanation:
Type C fire extinguishers deal with electrical fires. They are most likely to be found
around a digital information processing facility or data center.
Type A is for common combustibles
Type B is for liquids (petroleum products and coolants)
Type D is used specifically for fighting flammable metal fires (eg: magnesium). Additionally
Class K fires are caused by cooking oils and fats. They typically burn much hotter than Class B
fires and are extinguished using wet chemical (alkali) fire extinguishers.
To remember the 4 classes of fire and what they are you can think about my first name which is
CLEMENT. See an example of this below:
Class Type
A Common combustible
B Liquid
C Electrical Fire
D Metal Burning
References:
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002,
chapter 6: Physical security (page 312).
Underwriters Laboratory's Rating and Testing of Fire Extinguishers (UL 711).
National Fire Protection Association's glossary. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fire_classes http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fire_extinguisher http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fire_retardant_foam
NEW QUESTION 524
What is the MAIN reason for testing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?
- A. To validate backup sites' effectiveness
- B. To ensure Information Technology (IT) staff knows and performs roles assigned to each of them
- C. To create a high level DRP awareness among Information Technology (IT) staff
- D. To find out what does not work and fix it
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Security Assessment and Testing
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 525
How does a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) identify a potential attack?
- A. Examines the Access Control List (ACL)
- B. Monitors alarms sent to the system administrator
- C. Examines log messages or other indications on the system.
- D. Matches traffic patterns to virus signature files
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 526
Which of the following is not considered firewall technology?
- A. Dual homed host
- B. Duel gateway host
- C. Screened subnet
- D. Screened host
Answer: B
Explanation:
Duel gateway host is not considered firewall technology.
NEW QUESTION 527
Which of the following is defined as an Internet, IPsec, key-establishment protocol, partly based on OAKLEY, that is intended for putting in place authenticated keying material for use with ISAKMP and for other security associations?
- A. Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)
- B. Internet Key exchange (IKE)
- C. Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA)
- D. Security Association Authentication Protocol (SAAP)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With IPsec, Key management can be dealt with manually or automatically via a key management protocol.
The genuine standard for IPSec is to make use of Internet Key Exchange (IKE), which is a permutation of the ISAKMP and OAKLEY protocols.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Security Association Authentication Protocol(SAAP) is not a valid term.
C: Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP) was a protocol developed by the IETF Security Working Group for the sharing of encryption keys.
D: Key Exchange Algorithm includes Diffie-Hellman and RSA, but is not based on OAKLEY.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, p. 863
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Key-Management_for_Internet_Protocol
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc962035.aspx
NEW QUESTION 528
The main risks that physical security components combat are all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. Tailgating
- B. SYN flood
- C. theft
- D. physical damage
Answer: B
Explanation:
SYN flood is not a physical security issue. The main risks that physical security components combat are theft, interruptions to services, physical instrusion and damage, compromised system integrity, and unauthorized disclosure of information.
From: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne,
2002, page 291.
NEW QUESTION 529
Which attack type below does NOT exploit TCP vulnerabilities?
- A. Sequence Number attack
- B. SYN attack
- C. Ping of Death
- D. land.c attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Ping of Death exploits the fragmentation vulnerability of large ICMP ECHO request packets by sending an illegal packet with more than 65K of data, creating a buffer overflow.
*a TCP sequence number attack, which exploits the nonrandom predictable pattern of TCP connection sequence numbers to spoof a session.
*a TCP SYN attack, is a DoS attack that exploits the TCP threeway handshake. The attacker rapidly generates randomly sourced SYN packets filling the target's connection queue before the connection can timeout.
*land.c attack, is also a DoS attack that exploits TCP SYN packets. The attacker sends a packet that gives both the source and destination as the target's address, and uses the same source and destination port. Sources: Designing Network Security by Merike Kaeo (Cisco Press, 1999) and Mastering Network Security by Chris Brenton (Sybex, 1999).
NEW QUESTION 530
At which layer of ISO/OSI does the fiber optics work?
- A. Data link layer
- B. Physical layer
- C. Transport layer
- D. Network layer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The physical layer consists of the basic networking hardware transmission technologies, such as fiber optics, of a network.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers.
B: The transport layer provide host-to-host communication services for applications. It provides services such as connection-oriented data stream support, reliability, flow control, and multiplexing.
C: The data link layer is responsible for media access control, flow control and error checking.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, p. 530
NEW QUESTION 531
A company was ranked as high in the following National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) functions: Protect, Detect, Respond and Recover. However, a low maturity grade was attributed to the Identify function. In which of the following the controls categories does this company need to improve when analyzing its processes individually?
- A. Recovery Planning, Improvements and Communications
- B. Access Control, Awareness and Training, Data Security and Maintenance
- C. Anomalies and Events, Security Continuous Monitoring and Detection Processes
- D. Asset Management, Business Environment, Governance and Risk Assessment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 532
Which choice below is NOT an accurate description or element of
remote sensing technology?
- A. Photographic, radar, infrared, or multi-spectral imagery from geostationary or orbiting satellites
- B. Photographic, radar, infrared, or multi-spectral imagery from landbased tracking stations
- C. Photographic, radar, infrared, or multi-spectral imagery from manned or unmanned aircraft
- D. RS intelligence may be integrated into geographic information systems (GIS) to produce map-based products
Answer: B
Explanation:
Remote sensing is the acquisition of information via aerial or satellite sensors. The most critical category of information to capture immediately following a disaster is accurate and timely intelligence about the scope, extent, and impact of the event. Intelligent and effective decisions hinge on the credible characterization of the situation. If the disaster is extensive enough, it may cause serious damage to the telephone or wireless infrastructure and ground communications may be unusable to accurately assess the situation. Remote sensing systems can provide a highly effective alternative means of gathering intelligence about the event. *Answer "Photographic, radar, infrared, or multi-spectral imagery from manned or unmanned aircraft" describes remote sensing using aerial-derived information. *Answer "Photographic, radar, infrared, or multi-spectral imagery from geostationary or orbiting satellites" describes satellite-derived remote sensing. *Answer "RS intelligence may be integrated into geographic information systems (GIS) to produce map-based products" describes a common use of the remote sensing data. Source: Remote Sensing in Federal Disaster Areas, Standard Operating Procedures, FEMA 9321.1-PR, June 1999
NEW QUESTION 533
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